WHY is there an apparent difference between the national budget and home finance?

For example, an employee approaches their boss with a request for an increase in salary. "Why do you need the extra money?" asks the boss.

"Because I have charitable commitments which mean I don't have enough money left to meet my domestic responsibilities, you know, rent, rates, food etc."

"Get out!" the boss says. "Everyone knows you have a duty to fulfil your personal liabilities first. Then, and only then, if you have some spare cash you can donate that to charity."

The boss's attitude is correct based on common sense. This being the case, why have this and previous governments insisted on making international charitable donations and offers of aid to other organisations and governments?

Why do the same British governments give loans out of national coffers which have to be replaced by foreign borrowing? Is this sound financial logic?

G Michael Meehan,

Aldborough House,

Brook Street, York.

Updated: 09:50 Wednesday, October 20, 2004