IN a recent vote over the membership of the Customs Union after Brexit, the House of Lords overruled the

Commons.

Why is this allowed to

happen?

The Lords are unelected and represent no one.

They do not even show

loyalty to their own party: the views expressed in the Lords are only their

personal ones, they are not even told to abide by their party whip.

When the result of the

vote was shown on national

TV, I lost count of the number of £300 attendance allowances which were on show - surely an expense

that should be done away with?

A P Cox,

Heath Close,

Holgate,

York