IN a recent vote over the membership of the Customs Union after Brexit, the House of Lords overruled the
Commons.
Why is this allowed to
happen?
The Lords are unelected and represent no one.
They do not even show
loyalty to their own party: the views expressed in the Lords are only their
personal ones, they are not even told to abide by their party whip.
When the result of the
vote was shown on national
TV, I lost count of the number of £300 attendance allowances which were on show - surely an expense
that should be done away with?
A P Cox,
Heath Close,
York
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